Am I right to think that if we have a DIP the lender already checked credit scores etc, so the only way they wouldn't lend (after getting DIP) is if we couldn't prove figures (e.g. if you lied about earnings) or if survey came back with issues (e.g. they would not lend you that amount if they didn't think the property was worth it)? Wow- that was a long sentence!
Many thanks in advance for any answers
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Mortgage (Decision in Principle question)
20 replies
Wiggy29 · 10/10/2013 06:59
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