How does the court split the finances in this situation?
Ex and I never went to court, but he isnt happy with what he got, and is now talking about court (I dont think he will go, though)
briefly: before we married, I had money (enough for deposit on house), he had none, but owns houses overseas, outside the EU.
During our marriage, he point blank refused to work ("I will not be your servant going out to work while you enjoy yourself at home with the children." Yes, I agree.)
So, result was at the end of our marriage, he had been out of work for several years, and was in his late fifties. I had been working almost the whole time.
I had built up my career to teh point where I can pay an au pair and carry on working.
(I should add, that while he was taking care of the children, he neglected them, sent them to school with dirty clothes and took them out of school several times.)
Anyway, the children now live with me. We sold our UK house, paid the expenses, including repaying a loan in my name that was taken out during our marriage, and I split the rest of the money in half.
We also owned a second house in France, bought during the marriage that he gets outright.
So, he ends with his property from before the marriage, + the French house (it is not worth a lot, in fact it is officially not habitable) + half the profit from the UK house.
I end with my original money plus 20K, total of this being the other half of the profit from the UK house.
He now lives in the French house, I live in a rented house. He pays no maintenance, although I am trying to claim it via the german system. He still has no job, and refuses to get one.
What sort of thing would a court have ordered?
Xenia, I remember you saying that you had had to pay out to your ex - would it have been very different from what we did?
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Xenia and other lone parents who were the breadwinner and have custody of the children after divorce...
14 replies
Nightynight · 02/01/2008 11:00
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