Hi,
My STBXH has had a solicitor acting for him for the last six months in respect of divorce/child contact issues. I am currently self-representing. The solicitor (based in Rotherham) has emailed me advising "after this letter we will no longer be instructed by Mr X and therefore please do not attempt to communicate with us directly".
I read this and thought ok, makes sense as the STBXH is now residing in Scotland so presumably he is changing solicitor.
I then receive an email from STBXH which is copied into the Rotherham solicitor advising that the Rotherham solicitor is still acting for him "just refusing to deal with you".
I've no idea why the solicitor would refuse to deal with me as all communications have been professional and polite. I have emailed the Rotherham solicitor asking them to confirm whether they are acting for STBXH or not in light of the two contradictory emails but have not received any response.
Any idea what is going on here?! I wondered if STBXH has instructed them to say this in order to try and keep his costs down ? Would a solicitor pretend not to be acting for a client ? And if so, why ?
Grateful for any thoughts.
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Why Would A Solicitor Pretend Not To Act For A Client ?
10 replies
carolinem99 · 25/07/2014 17:18
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