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Legal matters

Harassment?

6 replies

Whocansay · 05/12/2012 09:02

My mother and ex-stepfather have been divorved for about 3 years, but the financial settlement is still not finalised as the house is not sold. My ex-stf deliberately scuppered 2 sales early on in the process out of spite (we have this in writing from the estate agent).

My mother lives in the house and he bought a new property some distance away from her.

The house has now been on the market for nearly 4 years and my ex-stf wants it sold. He has been getting his solicitor to bombard my mother with demands that the price be dropped, below the level of both previous offers. She agreed to this about a month ago. However, now she is receiving letters that he wants to put it up for auction.

She's not a young woman and has health problems. He bullied her throughout their marriage and is continuing to do so. I think he enjoys wielding whatever power he has left. Throught the divorce, every time she has agreed to something, he changes his mind and wants something else.

My mum does not have a solicitor at present as the bills were racking up, but we have one on standby. Can his actions be classed as harrassment? He hasn't given it very long for the price to be dropped.

I just want him to stop, as of course does my mum. She wants to sell the house and move on, but the market isn't great where they live in the UK and she needs to have enough to buy somewhere new to live. I appreciate he wants his money now, but he could have had it long ago if it was that important. Any thoughts?

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Collaborate · 05/12/2012 09:15

That's not harassment. He has a legitimate reason for communicating with her. Maybe he could communicate with her through you.

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Whocansay · 05/12/2012 11:13

Thanks Collaborate. We've tried that before (mum has five children), but he's always abused the contact. This is why we insisted all contact is through a solicitor.

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RedHelenB · 05/12/2012 12:52

What was agreed financially by the divorce? Seems very unfair that he has a property & she doesn't.

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Whocansay · 05/12/2012 14:36

Everything's supposed to be split 50 /50. He took most of the cash / valuables with him when he left, so mum will get about 70% of the proceeds from the house when it's sold. He also refuses to pay anything towards the upkeep of the house. His position is that as she lives there and he doesn't, its all her problem. I've told her to keep receipts for everything and submit it to her solicitor once the house is sold.

Not relevant to my query, but much of what has happened has been unfair, with my mum coming out the loser, but we were so pleased to be rid of him at the time, we just let him take the stuff. If he'd have stayed, she'd be in a box.

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digerd · 05/12/2012 16:17

Perhaps he wants it to go to auction so he can get it cheap, pay her less, and then resell for a profit to himself?

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Whocansay · 06/12/2012 08:37

I absolutely wouldn't put it passed him!

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