I was reading another thread that said that the respondent not the petitioner pays the legal fees in divorce cases.Is this true and if so how does it work.Is it for all costs,including financial and child matters.
I am a SAHM with 2 children.H works but is self employed and works as a limted company.Earns excess of £40,000.
Even though I'm a sAHM we have an owned house.mortgage completely paid off.Which is in my sole name(married along time so he's entitled to a proportion).So of course house counts as assets,so I thought that I'd have to pay my costs.Is this the case.
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divorce who pays
4 replies
womblingfree1970 · 10/05/2011 09:38
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