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Why do residential trips have to paid in full almost a year in advance?

5 replies

Milliways · 05/07/2005 22:44

I don't begrudge the price of the trip - it was my choice to let DD go, but when we go on hols we pay about 12 weeks in advance.

DD has been on 2 French trips, both required a £50 deposit >12 months in advance, with balance paid about 6 months before. I have paid a £50 deposit for a trip NEXT SUMMER & they want another £110 before Friday & the full balance before November!!!

Surely the school are just earning interest on MY money?

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Fauve · 05/07/2005 23:16

I'd be too. For ds' recent trip we were offered monthly instalments and only had to pay the lot off about a month before the trip.

Discriminates against people who don't have lots to spare. They should say why IMO.

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RTKangaMummy · 05/07/2005 23:17

I don't know

We had to pay £50 last oct for the trip last week

Then the balance had to be paid a month ago BUT we chose to pay £10 per week

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Milliways · 05/07/2005 23:22

Primary trips weren't too bad. DS is going away in Sept & balance was due in June - fair enough.

The secondary trips are always first come first served - to do with GCSE stuff etc, send £50 NOW to secure your place, and sign to say you will be liable for whole balance. It's only when they've cashed your £50 do they say OK, another £100 or so next month please , The whole price is reasonable (beats the ski-ing trip etc) but just so early!

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sallystrawberry · 05/07/2005 23:22

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JulieF · 06/07/2005 16:06

I assume it is becasue the school is liable for the full cost of the trip after a certain date has passed so any drop outs would cause problems.

The travel company may well ask for quite a bit up front.

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